DID PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?
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15-01-2014, 08:44 AM
RE: DID PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?
(14-01-2014 05:02 PM)truthBtold Wrote:  In (Heb 10:5-6) Why does paul add "but a body thou hast prepared for me" why doe he add words to the text in (psa 40:6). Dont add words to make it fit jesus. Agnia in hebrew means ears, not body. Even the Wistminster Leningrad Codex, which has the Hebrew words, does not feature the words for "body" or "prepared" in this verse. The reason you haven't found "a body you have prepared for me" in the Torah is because that was another edit by Paul. Psalms 40:6 reads "Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, but my ears you have opened for me" ( this is from the NIV!). King David is saying he would bring offerings, but they are not as important to G-D as opening one's ears and listening to His commandments!
Quite simply: "oznayim" in Hebrew is the plural form of the word "ear." "Karisa" is the root word "kaf-raysh," which means "excavate; dig" (as also found in Genesis 50:5: "Bury me in the tomb I dug [karisi] for myself in the land of Canaan") with the suffix denoting 2nd person, past tense. Why the change?

Nothing too sinister. The Septuagint, Paul's Old Testament, renders (as we find it) θυσιαν και προσφοραν ουκ ηθελησας ωτια δε κατηρτισω μοι, "Sacrifice and offering you did not want, but ears you fashioned for me." In transmission, however, ηθελησας ωτια was corrupted. The final sigma, in the majuscule, is indistinguishable from a medial sigma, and that sigma got doubled to make sense of the following word (not separated by spaces) when the -τι- was confused with a mu, giving us ηθελησας σωμα, "a body you fashioned."

The vast majority of the differences between the Hebrew Bible and the quotations from the New Testament arise as a result of confusion, error, or translator exegesis within the transmission of the Septuagint.

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15-01-2014, 08:47 AM
RE: DID PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?
(15-01-2014 08:28 AM)Hafnof Wrote:  "With the advent of the Bulletin board system, or BBS, and later the Internet, typing messages in all caps became closely identified with "shouting" or attention-seeking behavior, and is considered very rude. As a result, netiquette generally discourages the use of all caps when posting messages online. While all caps can be used as an alternative to rich-text "bolding" for a single word or phrase, to express emphasis, repeated use of all caps can be considered "shouting" or irritating."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/All_caps



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15-01-2014, 11:12 AM
RE: DID PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?
(15-01-2014 07:43 AM)truthBtold Wrote:  wHy DO U think THAts SHouTiNG... its not. Where did u learn that? Thats why we have these.... @$!÷#%\*×... education is golden..!!

No, those symbols are for swearing, not shouting. Read some comic books.
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15-01-2014, 12:01 PM
RE: DID PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?
ANOTHER EXAMPLE...Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?
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