Free will
Post Reply
 
Thread Rating:
  • 0 Votes - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
06-05-2016, 01:21 PM
RE: Free will
crap, somebody already told that joke.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
06-05-2016, 01:28 PM
RE: Free will
(05-05-2016 07:57 PM)Jewelarcher Wrote:  
(05-05-2016 07:17 PM)Alla Wrote:  free will. free will

Where(the book) did God of the Bible talk about free will?
what is free will?

i just learned that actually. That it doesn't state free will in the bible. Shortly after making the post I googled what the bible said about free will and it's like preachers take a verse and twist it.

so business as usual then.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
06-05-2016, 03:57 PM
RE: Free will
(05-05-2016 07:17 PM)Alla Wrote:  free will. free will

Where(the book) did God of the Bible talk about free will?
what is free will?

There isn't free will. There is only chuck Norris will. Everything happens because Chuck Norris says so. He doesn't give a shit what mortals think and wish to do.

Religion is bullshit. The winner of the last person to post wins thread.Yes
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
[+] 1 user Likes Leo's post
07-05-2016, 05:35 AM
RE: Free will
(05-05-2016 12:35 AM)Jewelarcher Wrote:  So I've been stuck on this carm page. I was reading a section on the Tower of Babel. The topic was about how if gods not the author of confusion why did he spread the people out and give them new languages. The one part that stuck out to me has nothing to do with confusion except.. Doesn't this violate the free will??
"They were seeking to remain one group in one location under their own efforts. Ultimately, this was a defiance of God's proclamation to fill the earth (Gen. 9:1). God wanted them to spread out. "So the Lord scattered them abroad from there over the face of the whole earth; and they stopped building the city. 9Therefore its name was called Babel, because there the Lord confused the language of the whole earth; and from there the Lord scattered them abroad over the face of the whole earth," (Gen. 11:8-9). Therefore, there is no contradiction since each is a different context and a different subject."
God forced them to do something they didn't want to do.. That's what this says anyway.

The Babel story is about the development of language. Europeans lived much further south during the ice age so various peoples with different languages rubbed up against each other. Babylon was a center of learning and of the Akkadian language. Sumerian which was the old language of the area was dissected and instead of sentences being made up by adding many endings to a word, the endings were made into words themselves, so, for instance, instead of putting a "de" at the end of a word to make it into "of" somewhere, the "de" was made into a separate word such as the French word "de" meaning "of". The reason for this is that Sumerian language rules are very difficult to teach so in trying to communicate with foreigners, for trade and commerce purposes, a simple language was more effective.

My own view is that the reason English has a lot of French in it, and Roman and Greek words, is that these languages were in much closer proximity 2000 years ago and before so there was much more trading of words.

It's only an hypothesis.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
07-05-2016, 05:36 AM
RE: Free will
But who gives a fk.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
07-05-2016, 07:08 PM
RE: Free will
(07-05-2016 05:35 AM)Deltabravo Wrote:  
(05-05-2016 12:35 AM)Jewelarcher Wrote:  So I've been stuck on this carm page. I was reading a section on the Tower of Babel. The topic was about how if gods not the author of confusion why did he spread the people out and give them new languages. The one part that stuck out to me has nothing to do with confusion except.. Doesn't this violate the free will??
"They were seeking to remain one group in one location under their own efforts. Ultimately, this was a defiance of God's proclamation to fill the earth (Gen. 9:1). God wanted them to spread out. "So the Lord scattered them abroad from there over the face of the whole earth; and they stopped building the city. 9Therefore its name was called Babel, because there the Lord confused the language of the whole earth; and from there the Lord scattered them abroad over the face of the whole earth," (Gen. 11:8-9). Therefore, there is no contradiction since each is a different context and a different subject."
God forced them to do something they didn't want to do.. That's what this says anyway.

The Babel story is about the development of language. Europeans lived much further south during the ice age so various peoples with different languages rubbed up against each other. Babylon was a center of learning and of the Akkadian language. Sumerian which was the old language of the area was dissected and instead of sentences being made up by adding many endings to a word, the endings were made into words themselves, so, for instance, instead of putting a "de" at the end of a word to make it into "of" somewhere, the "de" was made into a separate word such as the French word "de" meaning "of". The reason for this is that Sumerian language rules are very difficult to teach so in trying to communicate with foreigners, for trade and commerce purposes, a simple language was more effective.

My own view is that the reason English has a lot of French in it, and Roman and Greek words, is that these languages were in much closer proximity 2000 years ago and before so there was much more trading of words.

It's only an hypothesis.

Actually, the reason English has a lot of French, Latin and Greek words in it is because French used to be the most used language amongst noblety in Europe during the medieval era. Latin and Greek was the language of Priests and Scholars in all of Europe. English, as you know it, didn't exist 2000 years ago. It's a medieval language. It developped from the merging of Angle language, Norse language and Saxon language during the first 3 century of the Middle Age. When England was conquered by a French Duke, William the Conquerer (AKA Guillaume le Conquérant) and founded two french speaking dynasties of kings, french became the language of the noblety there too. Up to the late 18th century and the French Revolution, it was the language spoken in all the courts of Europe. Even North American leaders like George Washington were speaking french rather fluently. Languages, unlike most customs, evolve very fast. There were no influence from Middle East before the Crusades which brought back some Arabic terms in mathematic and astronomie.

Freedom is servitude to justice and intellectual honesty.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
[+] 2 users Like epronovost's post
08-05-2016, 12:22 AM
RE: Free will
(07-05-2016 07:08 PM)epronovost Wrote:  
(07-05-2016 05:35 AM)Deltabravo Wrote:  The Babel story is about the development of language. Europeans lived much further south during the ice age so various peoples with different languages rubbed up against each other. Babylon was a center of learning and of the Akkadian language. Sumerian which was the old language of the area was dissected and instead of sentences being made up by adding many endings to a word, the endings were made into words themselves, so, for instance, instead of putting a "de" at the end of a word to make it into "of" somewhere, the "de" was made into a separate word such as the French word "de" meaning "of". The reason for this is that Sumerian language rules are very difficult to teach so in trying to communicate with foreigners, for trade and commerce purposes, a simple language was more effective.

My own view is that the reason English has a lot of French in it, and Roman and Greek words, is that these languages were in much closer proximity 2000 years ago and before so there was much more trading of words.

It's only an hypothesis.

Actually, the reason English has a lot of French, Latin and Greek words in it is because French used to be the most used language amongst noblety in Europe during the medieval era. Latin and Greek was the language of Priests and Scholars in all of Europe. English, as you know it, didn't exist 2000 years ago. It's a medieval language. It developped from the merging of Angle language, Norse language and Saxon language during the first 3 century of the Middle Age. When England was conquered by a French Duke, William the Conquerer (AKA Guillaume le Conquérant) and founded two french speaking dynasties of kings, french became the language of the noblety there too. Up to the late 18th century and the French Revolution, it was the language spoken in all the courts of Europe. Even North American leaders like George Washington were speaking french rather fluently. Languages, unlike most customs, evolve very fast. There were no influence from Middle East before the Crusades which brought back some Arabic terms in mathematic and astronomie.

And all of this information just quoted is freely available via a simple google search. Instead DB chucks in a half-arsed "hypothesis" Dodgy Quality research as usual.

We'll love you just the way you are
If you're perfect -- Alanis Morissette
(06-02-2014 03:47 PM)Momsurroundedbyboys Wrote:  And I'm giving myself a conclusion again from all the facepalming.
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
[+] 1 user Likes morondog's post
08-05-2016, 01:58 AM
RE: Free will
(07-05-2016 07:08 PM)epronovost Wrote:  
(07-05-2016 05:35 AM)Deltabravo Wrote:  The Babel story is about the development of language. Europeans lived much further south during the ice age so various peoples with different languages rubbed up against each other. Babylon was a center of learning and of the Akkadian language. Sumerian which was the old language of the area was dissected and instead of sentences being made up by adding many endings to a word, the endings were made into words themselves, so, for instance, instead of putting a "de" at the end of a word to make it into "of" somewhere, the "de" was made into a separate word such as the French word "de" meaning "of". The reason for this is that Sumerian language rules are very difficult to teach so in trying to communicate with foreigners, for trade and commerce purposes, a simple language was more effective.

My own view is that the reason English has a lot of French in it, and Roman and Greek words, is that these languages were in much closer proximity 2000 years ago and before so there was much more trading of words.

It's only an hypothesis.

Actually, the reason English has a lot of French, Latin and Greek words in it is because French used to be the most used language amongst noblety in Europe during the medieval era. Latin and Greek was the language of Priests and Scholars in all of Europe. English, as you know it, didn't exist 2000 years ago. It's a medieval language. It developped from the merging of Angle language, Norse language and Saxon language during the first 3 century of the Middle Age. When England was conquered by a French Duke, William the Conquerer (AKA Guillaume le Conquérant) and founded two french speaking dynasties of kings, french became the language of the noblety there too. Up to the late 18th century and the French Revolution, it was the language spoken in all the courts of Europe. Even North American leaders like George Washington were speaking french rather fluently. Languages, unlike most customs, evolve very fast. There were no influence from Middle East before the Crusades which brought back some Arabic terms in mathematic and astronomie.

[Image: the-more-you-know.png]

[Image: E3WvRwZ.gif]
Find all posts by this user
Like Post Quote this message in a reply
Post Reply
Forum Jump: