Reification Fallacy, "god(s)" and human language
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17-10-2012, 11:46 AM
RE: Reification Fallacy, "god(s)" and human language
(17-10-2012 05:08 AM)Vera Wrote:  You know, I actually had to write a paper on linguistic universalism/relativism (Chomsky's ideas or the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis) for a semantics class (quite some time ago); found it rather interesting then and still do... I remember making references to the Newspeak of 1984, in which the expression of unorthodox thoughts is near impossible... yet it said nothing about the existence of such thoughts...

Plus, there's the linguistic distinction between langue and parole ( and we usually think about parole when talking about language shaping thought or vice versa...

What I wanted to say (and went about it in a rather roundabout way, as usual), is that while I agree that language does influence ideas, it does not create them; and would even go as far as to say that ideas/thought do more influencing than being influenced...

After all (one final going back to my linguistic educationWink), they say that language is all about making infinite use of a finite means, thus that every single language under the sun is capable of expressing every single idea (even if it does not exist in the culture of its speakers and is completely foreign to its mindset), it may do so in a very long and explanatory way but it'll still manage to express it...

Well, hope that made some sense (it did in my headSmile).

Language is the main tool in the creating (if one wants to use that word) ideas, however this tool is used to make sense of and explain the changing world around us.
Our material condition as humans changes and we understand this change through the use of language. Some Marxist flavor for ya.
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RE: Reification Fallacy, "god(s)" and human language - I and I - 17-10-2012 11:46 AM
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