What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
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03-09-2015, 03:14 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 02:57 PM)Free Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 02:53 PM)Alla Wrote:  Yes, there are Gods - Males and Females.
Polytheism.
Yes, there are Gods many and Lords many (as Paul said). But house of Israel worships only one of Them or only one God - monotheism.
All those other Gods is not our business.

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03-09-2015, 03:24 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 02:50 PM)Free Wrote:  The Hebrew word of "Elohim" used in your English translation is actually plural in the Hebrew, and it means "gods."

It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.
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03-09-2015, 03:24 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:14 PM)Alla Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 02:57 PM)Free Wrote:  Polytheism.
Yes, there are Gods many and Lords many (as Paul said). But house of Israel worships only one of Them or only one God - monotheism.
All those other Gods is not our business.

Okay, so these gods that created mankind are not the same singular God who you should worship?

How can anyone become an atheist when we are all born with no beliefs in the first place? We are atheists because we were born this way.
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03-09-2015, 03:35 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:24 PM)Aliza Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 02:50 PM)Free Wrote:  The Hebrew word of "Elohim" used in your English translation is actually plural in the Hebrew, and it means "gods."

It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.

So its a bit like the royal «we»? It's plural tense used by a singular being to show just how badass he is?
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03-09-2015, 03:35 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:24 PM)Aliza Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 02:50 PM)Free Wrote:  The Hebrew word of "Elohim" used in your English translation is actually plural in the Hebrew, and it means "gods."

It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.

Yes, I have seen that argument, but I disagree with it. Genesis 1:26 most certainly provides an argument with the "us" and "our" plural verbs.

How can anyone become an atheist when we are all born with no beliefs in the first place? We are atheists because we were born this way.
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03-09-2015, 03:41 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 01:40 PM)Alla Wrote:  
(02-09-2015 09:46 PM)Aliza Wrote:  G-d is not a male. G-d has no gender at all. He's only referred to as a He because of the English language's tendency to assume masculinity when the gender is unknown. In Hebrew, G-d is referred to as both male and female according to "gender" of the vocabulary and the attributes that G-d is exhibiting.
I was talking about God of this Earth. I was talking about God Yahweh. He is Man.
I didn't talk about other gods, yet - males and females.

Yes, of course. We have different views on that. -I should have taken that into account with my wording. My religion states that G-d is has no gender or form, and your religion views him as being a physical person. My apologies.
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03-09-2015, 03:51 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:35 PM)Free Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 03:24 PM)Aliza Wrote:  It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.

Yes, I have seen that argument, but I disagree with it. Genesis 1:26 most certainly provides an argument with the "us" and "our" plural verbs.

It's used in reference to God or gods.
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03-09-2015, 04:02 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:51 PM)jennybee Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 03:35 PM)Free Wrote:  Yes, I have seen that argument, but I disagree with it. Genesis 1:26 most certainly provides an argument with the "us" and "our" plural verbs.

It's used in reference to God or gods.

Yes it is.

How can anyone become an atheist when we are all born with no beliefs in the first place? We are atheists because we were born this way.
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03-09-2015, 04:06 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:35 PM)Free Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 03:24 PM)Aliza Wrote:  It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.

Yes, I have seen that argument, but I disagree with it. Genesis 1:26 most certainly provides an argument with the "us" and "our" plural verbs.

Some scholars do say that it shows a shift between polytheism and monotheism--the fact that it is plural and yet God is viewed as a singular entity. Gen. 11:7 also refers to "Let us." Then you also have the incident of the golden calf--which also showcases a shift between polytheism and monotheism.
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03-09-2015, 04:19 PM
RE: What evidence you got to prove the existence of God ?
(03-09-2015 03:35 PM)Free Wrote:  
(03-09-2015 03:24 PM)Aliza Wrote:  It's singular. The mem at the end could note plurality, but it doesn't in this case. It's like how the name James is not plural just because it ends in an s.

Yes, I have seen that argument, but I disagree with it. Genesis 1:26 most certainly provides an argument with the "us" and "our" plural verbs.

I know this is really wordy... sorry. At the end of the day, if you view it differently than I do, then that's fine. I still wish to state my case. Wink

Yes, the text does say “our” but the mem on the end of that word is not plural. The entitles to whom G-d is speaking are not identified in Genesis at all. I believe many Christians or people with Christian backgrounds see equal plurality there because that’s what they’re expecting to see. I don’t believe the text supports it, but to be fair, I'm not a Hebrew scholar.

Then again, Judaism and Christianity are totally different religions having very little in common. Observant Jews rely on the Talmud to help interpret confusing text. In the Talmud, it says that G-d is speaking to a council of angels and not to other gods.

Even if we don’t use the Talmud, there are other parts of the bible that depict G-d with angels and seraphims, and a council of the Lord. The phrase “us”…. Such as in Isaiah 6:1-2,8 G-d asks, “Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?” Jeremiah 22:26 and 23:18 and Job 15:8 talk about a council of the Lord. These passages clearly show that G-d is not alone, and I believe that there is precedence to show that when G-d says “us” He’s talking about His council and not to other gods which I don’t think are mentioned anywhere anyway.

I’m unaware of anywhere in the Hebrew scriptures where G-d indicates having a co-partnership with another G-d. I’d be curious to examine such a passage.
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